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NEW QUESTION # 153
The Chief Information Security Officer of an organization needs to ensure recovery from ransomware would likely occur within the organization's agreed-upon RPOs end RTOs. Which of the following backup scenarios would best ensure recovery?
- A. Daly differential backups maintained by a third-party cloud provider
- B. Weekly full backups with daily incremental stored on a NAS drive
- C. Hourly differential backups stored on a local SAN array
- D. Dally full backups stored on premises in magnetic offline media
Answer: B
Explanation:
A backup strategy that combines weekly full backups with daily incremental backups stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage) drive is likely to meet an organization's Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs) and Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs). This approach ensures that recent data is regularly backed up and that recovery can be done efficiently, without significant data loss or lengthy downtime.
References =
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Disaster Recovery and Backup Strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 154
You are security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network.
Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the Infecton and then deny each remaining hosts clean or infected.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Based on the logs, it seems that the host that originated the infection is 192.168.10.22. This host has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, which is unusual for a Windows service. It also has a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443, indicating that it is part of a botnet.
The firewall log shows that this host has been communicating with 10.10.9.18, which is another infected host on the engineering network. This host also has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, and a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443.
The other hosts on the R&D network (192.168.10.37 and 192.168.10.41) are clean, as they do not have any suspicious processes or connections.
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to protect data in transit?
- A. SSL3.0
- B. AES-256
- C. SHA-256
- D. TLS 1.3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) 1.3 is the latest version of the TLS protocol and provides strong encryption for securing data in transit between clients and servers. It offers improved security and performance compared to previous versions like SSL 3.0 and earlier TLS versions.
NEW QUESTION # 156
An engineer needs to find a solution that creates an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. Which of the following would be the best solution?
- A. RDP server
- B. Hypervisor
- C. Proxy server
- D. Jump server
Answer: D
Explanation:
A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target system. A jump server can provide an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. A user can connect to the jump server using a secure protocol, such as SSH, and then access the target system from the jump server. This way, the target system is isolated from the external network and only accessible through the jump server. A jump server can also enforce security policies, such as authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing, on the user's connection. A jump server is also known as a bastion host or a jump box.
NEW QUESTION # 157
A visitor plugs a laptop into a network jack in the lobby and is able to connect to the company's network. Which of the following should be configured on the existing network infrastructure to best prevent this activity?
- A. Virtual private network
- B. Web application firewall
- C. Transport layer security
- D. Port security
Answer: D
Explanation:
Port security is the best solution to prevent unauthorized devices, like a visitor's laptop, from connecting to the company's network. Port security can limit the number of devices that can connect to a network switch port and block unauthorized MAC addresses, effectively stopping unauthorized access attempts.
Web application firewall (WAF) protects against web-based attacks, not unauthorized network access.
Transport Layer Security (TLS) ensures encrypted communication but does not manage physical network access.
Virtual Private Network (VPN) secures remote connections but does not control access through physical network ports.
NEW QUESTION # 158
A security analyst is reviewing the source code of an application in order to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities. Which of the following kinds of analysis best describes this review?
- A. Impact
- B. Dynamic
- C. Gap
- D. Static
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reviewing the source code of an application to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities is best described as static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the code without executing the program. It focuses on finding potential security issues, coding errors, and vulnerabilities by analyzing the code itself.
Static analysis: Analyzes the source code or compiled code for vulnerabilities without executing the program.
Dynamic analysis: Involves testing and evaluating the program while it is running to identify vulnerabilities.
Gap analysis: Identifies differences between the current state and desired state, often used for compliance or process improvement.
Impact analysis: Assesses the potential effects of changes in a system or process.
NEW QUESTION # 159
A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single natural disaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup data. Which of the following should the company consider?
- A. Hot site
- B. Load balancing
- C. Geographic dispersion
- D. Platform diversity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters.
NEW QUESTION # 160
A software developer would like to ensure. The source code cannot be reverse engineered or debugged.
Which of the following should the developer consider?
- A. Version control
- B. Code reuse
- C. Stored procedures
- D. Obfuscation toolkit
- E. Continuous integration
Answer: D
Explanation:
An obfuscation toolkit is used by developers to make source code difficult to understand and reverse engineer.
This technique involves altering the code's structure and naming conventions without changing its functionality, making it much harder for attackers to decipher the code or use debugging tools to analyze it.
Obfuscation is an important practice in protecting proprietary software and intellectual property from reverse engineering.
References =
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture.
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure Coding Practices.
NEW QUESTION # 161
A company's marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest. Which of the following data roles describes the customer?
- A. Owner
- B. Custodian
- C. Processor
- D. Subject
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used.Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.
ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511
NEW QUESTION # 162
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
- A. Data masking
- B. Salting
- C. Steganography
- D. Key stretching
Answer: B
Explanation:
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. Reference = Passwords technical overview Encryption, hashing, salting - what's the difference?
Salt (cryptography)
NEW QUESTION # 163
After a security awareness training session, a user called the IT help desk and reported a suspicious call. The suspicious caller stated that the Chief Financial Officer wanted credit card information in order to close an invoice. Which of the following topics did the user recognize from the training?
- A. Social engineering
- B. Insider threat
- C. Executive whaling
- D. Email phishing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment.
The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk. The other topics are not relevant to this situation.
NEW QUESTION # 164
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?
- A. Integrity
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure.
The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data.
Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption.
Availabilityis the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373
NEW QUESTION # 165
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities.
The administrator also wants to apply the required access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?
- A. GPO
- B. RBAC
- C. SAML
- D. ACL
Answer: B
Explanation:
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1
NEW QUESTION # 166
An organization needs to monitor its users' activities to prevent insider threats. Which of the following solutions would help the organization achieve this goal?
- A. Identity and access management
- B. Access control lists
- C. Network intrusion detection system
- D. Behavioral analytics
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Behavioral analytics tools monitor user actions and detect anomalies that may indicate insider threats, such as unauthorized access or unusual data exfiltration activities. These tools establish baselines for normal behavior and flag deviations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Behavioral Analytics and Monitoring".
NEW QUESTION # 167
A company's legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?
- A. Data masking
- B. Data sovereignty regulation
- C. Geolocation policy
- D. Encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing. A geolocation policy can help the company's legal department to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.
The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:
Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data. Data masking can protect the privacy and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.
Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or method4.
Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can also vary depending on the country or region.
Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.
NEW QUESTION # 168
An administrator is reviewing a single server's security logs and discovers the following;
Which of the following best describes the action captured in this log file?
- A. Brute-force attack
- B. Forgotten password by the user
- C. Privilege escalation
- D. Failed password audit
Answer: A
Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack. The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code 0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 and 223 1
NEW QUESTION # 169
An organization recently started hosting a new service that customers access through a web portal. A security engineer needs to add to the existing security devices a new solution to protect this new service. Which of the following is the engineer most likely to deploy?
- A. Layer 4 firewall
- B. UTM
- C. WAF
- D. NGFW
Answer: C
Explanation:
A WAF is specifically designed to protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between a web application and the internet. It can help prevent attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other web-based threats that could target the new service accessed through the web portal.
NEW QUESTION # 170
While conducting a business continuity tabletop exercise, the security team becomes concerned by potential impacts if a generator fails during failover. Which of the following is the team most likely to consider in regard to risk management activities?
- A. BIA
- B. MTTR
- C. ARO
- D. RPO
Answer: B
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is a key metric in risk management, reflecting the time required to repair a failed component, such as a generator, and restore operations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Business Continuity Metrics".
NEW QUESTION # 171
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