Palo Alto Networks PCCET Dumps - 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 145 Questions)
Real PCCET dumps - Real Palo Alto Networks dumps PDF
The PCCET exam is a computer-based test that consists of 75 multiple-choice questions. PCCET exam duration is 90 minutes, and candidates must score at least 70% to pass the exam. PCCET exam can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center worldwide. Candidates can also prepare for the exam by taking the official PCCET training course offered by Palo Alto Networks.
The PCCET exam is designed for individuals who are new to the cybersecurity industry or have limited experience in the field. It is an entry-level exam that tests the candidate's knowledge of Palo Alto Networks' security technologies, including firewalls, endpoint protection, cloud security, and network security. PCCET exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat detection, prevention, and response, as well as network security fundamentals and cybersecurity operations.
NEW QUESTION # 83
How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?
- A. Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure
- B. Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility
- C. Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility
- D. Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 84
You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.
Which type of attack is this?
- A. Phishing
- B. Whaling
- C. Spamming
- D. Spear phishing
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which option describes the "selective network security virtualization" phase of incrementally transforming data centers?
- A. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced
- B. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server
- C. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol
- D. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Selective network security virtualization: Intra-host communications and live migrations are architected at this phase. All intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled to ensure that traffic between VMs at different trust levels is intermediated either by an on-box, virtual security appliance or by an off-box, physical security appliance.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?
- A. Bus Topology
- B. Spine Leaf Topology
- C. Mesh Topology
- D. Star Topology
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?
- A. hiding within SSL encryption
- B. tunneling within commonly used services
- C. use of non-standard ports
- D. port hopping
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Port hopping, in which ports and protocols are randomly changed during a session.
NEW QUESTION # 88
From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?
- A. MineMeld
- B. Unit 52
- C. PAN-DB
- D. BrightCloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
When you enable URL Filtering, all web traffic is compared against the URL Filtering database, PAN-DB, which contains millions of URLs that have been grouped into about 65 categories.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?
- A. identity security
- B. compute security
- C. network protection
- D. dynamic computing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prisma Cloud comprises four pillars:
* Visibility, governance, and compliance. Gain deep visibility into the security posture of multicloud environments. Track everything that gets deployed with an automated asset inventory, and maintain compliance with out-of-the-box governance policies that enforce good behavior across your environments.
* Compute security. Secure hosts, containers, and serverless workloads throughout the application lifecycle. Detect and prevent risks by integrating vulnerability intelligence into your integrated development environment (IDE), software configuration management (SCM), and CI/CD workflows. Enforce machine learning-based runtime protection to protect applications and workloads in real time.
* Network protection. Continuously monitor network activity for anomalous behavior, enforce microservice-aware micro-segmentation, and implement industry-leading firewall protection. Protect the network perimeter and the connectivity between containers and hosts.
* Identity security. Monitor and leverage user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) across your environments to detect and block malicious actions. Gain visibility into and enforce governance p
NEW QUESTION # 90
Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Reduce the attack surface: Best-of-breed technologies that are natively integrated provide a prevention architecture that inherently reduces the attack surface. This type of architecture allows organizations to exert positive control based on applications, users, and content, with support for open communication, orchestration, and visibility.
Prevent all known threats, fast: A coordinated security platform accounts for the full scope of an attack across the various security controls that compose the security posture, thus enabling organizations to quickly identify and block known threats.
Detect and prevent new, unknown threats with automation: Security that simply detects threats and requires a manual response is too little, too late. Automated creation and delivery of near-real-time protections against new threats to the various security solutions in the organization's environments enable dynamic policy updates. These updates are designed to allow enterprises to scale defenses with technology, rather than people.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 92
If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?
- A. The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.
- B. The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.
- C. The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.
- D. The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world's most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?
- A. Prisma SAAS
- B. Cortex XDR
- C. Cortex XSOAR
- D. WildFire
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cortex XSOAR enhances Security Operations Center (SOC) efficiency with the world's most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security. Cortex XSOAR unifies case management, automation, real-time collaboration, and native threat intel management in the industry's first extended security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) offering.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?
- A. Hub
- B. Layer 2 switch
- C. Router
- D. Wireless access point
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A layer 2 switch will break up collision domains but not broadcast domains. To break up broadcast domains you need a Layer 3 switch with vlan capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)
- A. They can be accessed by traffic from the internet.
- B. They can expose servers in the internal network to attacks.
- C. They are isolated from the internal network.
- D. They are located in the internal network.
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 96
On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?
- A. full-disk encryption
- B. software patches
- C. strong user passwords
- D. endpoint-based firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
New software vulnerabilities and exploits are discovered all the time and thus diligent software patch management is required by system and security administrators in every organization.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?
- A. patch
- B. technique
- C. exploit
- D. vulnerability
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 98
Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 99
Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?
- A. XDR
- B. SIEM
- C. STEP
- D. SOAR
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?
- A. Stateless
- B. Application
- C. Proxy
- D. Stateful
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 101
What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?
- A. Dedicated Hosts
- B. Multi-tenancy
- C. Dedicated Networks
- D. Multiplexing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multitenancy is a key characteristic of the public cloud, and an important risk. Although public cloud providers strive to ensure isolation between their various customers, the infrastructure and resources in the public cloud are shared. Inherent risks in a shared environment include misconfigurations, inadequate or ineffective processes and controls, and the "noisy neighbor" problem (excessive network traffic, disk I/O, or processor use can negatively impact other customers sharing the same resource). In hybrid and multicloud environments that connect numerous public and/or private clouds, the delineation becomes blurred, complexity increases, and security risks become more challenging to address.
NEW QUESTION # 102
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